Posted: November 9th, 2015

Public Health Nursing Competency

Public Health Nursing Competency

1. The study of functional or physiologic changes in the body as a result of a disease process is called.

A) Pathology B) Pathophysiology C) Pathogenesis D) Sociopathic‚

2. Disease can be defined as a state where ________ cannot be maintained.
A) hemostasis B) homeopathic C) homeostasis D) homogeny‚

3. An excision of a very small piece of living tissue which is examined to help in the diagnosis of disease  is called a(n): A) autopsy B) microscopic exam C) lesion D) biopsy

4. The term refers to the causative factors in a particular disease is:
A) etiology B) pathogenesis C) manifestations D) signs and symptoms‚

5. If the cause of a disease is unknown, which of the following terms is used?
A) iatrogenic B) idiopathic C) subclinical D) latent‚

6. Subjective indicators of a disease like pain or nausea are called:
A) symptoms B) signs C) lesions D) syndromes‚

7. Which of the following terms refers to the potential unwanted outcomes of the primary condition, such as paralysis after recovery from a stroke?
A) remissions B) complications C) sequelae D) manifestations

8. Which term refers to a decrease in the size of cells?

A) hypertrophy B) dysplasia C) metaplasia D) atrophy‚

9. The term that refers to signs of a disease increasing during the course of the disease is:
A) manifestation B) exacerbation C) remission D) syndrome‚

10. Which of the following is the most common cause of cell or tissue injury?

A) nutritional deficits B) mechanical damage such as a cut C) ischemia D) microorganisms

11. Which of the following is not true about inflammation?

A) it is a response to tissue injury B) it tries to localize and remove an injurious agent C) it can be a warning sign of a problem D) it is the same as an infection

12. Which of the following is not a classic sign of inflammation?
A) numbness B) swelling C) pain D) warmth

13. Which of the following might be a systemic sign of inflammation?
A) exudate B) swelling C) malaise D) abscess

14. The type of exudate that is characterized by being thick and yellow-green in color is:
A) serous B) purulent C) fibrinous D) hemorrhagic

15. Which of the following is not a potential complication of inflammation?
A) ulcers B) muscle spasms C) infection D) dehydration

16. Which of the following medications is not an anti-inflammatory?
A) ASA B) Acetaminophen C) NSAIDS D) glucocorticoids

17. RICE is often recommended for injury-related inflammation, especially of joints. RICE stands for:

A) rest, ice, compression, elevation B) rest, immerse, compression, elevation C) rest, ice, compression, exercise D) raise, ice, compression, exercise

18. Which of the following is the type of healing that occurs in scar formation?

A) resolution B) regeneration C) replacement D) granulation

19. Which of the following factors may delay healing?

A) advanced age B) poor nutrition C) poor blood supply D) all of the above

20. Which of the following is not a complication of scar formation?

A) increased mobility B) adhesions C) ulceration D) contracture

21. The classification of burn that affects both the epidermis and dermis and will probably have blisters is called:

A) Full-thickness B) Partial-thickness C) Deep Partial-thickness D) 1st degree ‚

22. Which of the following is not a possible effect of serious burn injury?

A) shock B) itching C) infection D) respiratory problems

23. The Rule of Nines is used to determine which of the following?

A) percentage of body surface area burned B) percentage of body surface that will need skin grafts C) percentage of body surface covered by partial-thickness burns D) none of the above

24. The term that refers to a substance on the surface of a cell that our body will attack if it does not match our own is called a(n):

A) antibody B) immunoglobulin C) complement D) antigen‚

25. A titer will measure the level and functional quality of _______ in our blood.

A) antigens B) complement C) antibodies D) pathogens

26. Which of the following types of immunity is gained by receiving a vaccination?

A) Active Natural B) Active Artificial C) Passive Natural D) Passive Artificial ‚

27. Which of the following types of immunity is gained by a baby receiving antibodies through breast milk?

A) Active Natural B) Active Artificial C) Passive Natural D) Passive Artificial
28. Tissue transplanted from one part of the body to another like skin or bone is called a(n):

A) allograft B) xenograft C) isograft D) autograft ‚
29. A type of transplant rejection that may occur after several weeks is called:

A) chronic B) acute C) hyperacute D) ongoing

30. Infections that may occur due to the immunosuppressive drugs taken after a transplant are called:

A) opportunistic B) prophylactic C) allergies D) heterografts ‚

31. A Type I Hypersensitivity Reaction could be caused by which of the following? A) ABO blood incompatibility B) an autoimmune disorder C) transplant rejection D) an allergen

32. Which of the following is not true about anaphylaxis? A) it can be life-threatening B) it is usually treated with prednisone C) it can cause decreased blood pressure D) it is a systemic reaction

33. Which of the following is considered an autoimmune disorder? A) HIV B) Allergy C) SLE D) Influenza

34. Which of the following is true about Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)? A) the prognosis is poor B) there are no medications that help C) it never involves organs D) it is often characterized by a butterfly rash on the cheeks‚

35. Which of the following is not true about HIV? A) antibodies to HIV will show up within 2 weeks of infection B) HIV can be transmitted through blood or body fluids C) an early symptom of HIV may be mild flu-like symptoms D) HIV is a retrovirus‚

36. Which of the following is true about AIDS? A) a person with HIV has AIDS B) AIDS is diagnosed if HIV antibodies are present in the blood C) AIDS is the active or end-stage form of HIV D) AIDS can be cured

37. A microbe that can cause disease is termed a(n) A) monocyte B) pathogen C) prokaryotic cell D) leukocyte

38. Which of the following is not a type of bacteria? A) bacilli B) spiral C) cocci D) yeast ‚

39. Viruses do what that makes it difficult for a host to develop immunity? A) mutate B) can be a combination of viruses C) can change combinations rapidly D) all of the above ‚

40. Which of the following protozoa causes malaria? A) trichomonas vaginalis B) plasmodium C) entamoeba histolytica D) trophozoite

41. The mode of transmission which occurs through coughing or sneezing is called: A) droplet B) direct C) vector-borne D) indirect

42. The term that refers to an infection which occurs in a health care facility is: A) iatrogenic B) homeopathic C) nosocomial D) vector-borne

43. All of the following might decrease host resistance except: A) age B) malnutrition C) chronic disease D) mild stress

44. Which of the following is not a factor in virulence? A) classification of pathogen B) invasive qualities C) ability to avoid host defenses D) toxic qualities ‚

45. Which of the following is the best definition of Universal Precautions? A) Using gown and gloves when you know someone has an infection. B) Assuming that all blood, body fluids, and wastes are infectious. C) Wearing gloves, a gown, and a mask with every patient, no matter what your task. D) Wearing gloves only when dealing with blood products.

46. Which of the following will help break the cycle of infection? A) locate and remove the reservoir B) block the portals of entrance and exit C) know how the infection is transmitted D) all of the above

47. Which of the following is the time in a course of infection when you sense you are ‚¡Ã“coming down with something. A) acute period B) incubation period C) prodromal period D) period of sensitivity

48. An overwhelming systemic infection is called: A) septicemia B) subclinical C) toxicity D) pathogenicity

49. Which of the following is not a systemic sign of infection that may occur? A) fever B) purulent exudate C) fatigue D) weakness

50. Which of the following terms refers to a drug that be classified by the type of microbe against which it is active? A) antibiotic B) disinfectant C) antimicrobial D) antiseptic

51. Which of the following statements is not true regarding influenza? A) it is caused by a bacteria B) it is a respiratory infection C) Type A is the most common D) it has a sudden, acute onset

52. Which two subgroups of influenza tend to cause epidemics that occur in cycles? A) Type A and C B) Type A and B C) Type B and C D) All are equally influential‚

53. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a malignant tumor? A) rapid growth B) invades nearby tissues C) metastasizes to distant sites D) cells are differentiated‚

54. Based on its name, which of the following is likely a benign tumor? A) lipoma B) fibrosarcoma C) adenocarcinoma D) malignant melanoma ‚

55. The term that refers to a malignant tumor that grows new blood vessels as it grows is: A) carcinogenesis B) metastasis C) angiogenesis D) seeding ‚

56. Which of the following is local effect of cancer? A) weight loss B) anemia C) infections D) obstruction ‚

57. Which of the following is not used to stage a tumor? A) size of the primary tumor B) what type of cancer it is C) extend of regional lymph nodes involved D) if it has metastasized

58. Which of the following is not a risk factor for cancer? A) increasing age B) diet C) fungi D) hormones

59. Which of the following is not a treatment for cancer? A) radiation B) surgery C) hormones D) antibiotics

60. A person is considered ¹Ã…“curedonce they are cancer-free for at least: A) 1 yr. B) 5 yrs. C) 6 mths. D) 3 yrs.

61. Which of the following is the term used for an increased thoracic curvature of the spine? A) kyphosis B) lordosis C) scoliosis D) sclerosis‚

62. Which of the following might be a treatment used for treating scoliosis? A) stretching B) traction C) bedrest D) a back brace‚

63. Which of the following is a bone infection that may occur in adolescence due to mild trauma? A) osteoporosis B) lordosis C) osteomyelitis D) juvenile rheumatoid arthritis‚

64. Which of the following pathogens most commonly is the cause of osteomyelitis in adolescents? A) streptococci B) staphylococcus aureus C) candida D) herpes simplex‚

65. Which of the following is not true about anorexia nervosa? A) it is characterized by binge eating B) one peak period is 12-14 years of age C) females are affected more often than males D) severe malnutrition can result‚

66. Which of the following is not a way to control acne vulgaris? A) avoid using oily creams B) improve general nutrition C) scrub the area frequently D) use an antibacterial agent‚

67. Which of the following is true regarding infectious mononucleosis? A) red blood cells are in the shape of sickles B) it can only be passed to someone else through kissing C) a possible complication is a ruptured liver D) it is caused by the Epstein-Barr virus‚

68. Which of the following is true regarding menopause? A) 75% of women experience significant effects B) the ovaries no longer respond to FSH & LH C) breast tissue will increase in volume D) the changes occur around age 30

69. Which of the following is not seen more often with aging? A) osteoporosis B) herniated vertebral disc C) osteoarthritis D) increased mobility

70. Which of the following is not a respiratory change seen in aging? A) increased lung elasticity B) skeletal changes reduce thoracic movement C) weakness of intercostal muscles D) costal cartilage calcifies

71. Which of the following would not have an effect on poor nutrition in the elderly? A) periodontal disease B) osteoarthritis C) xerostomia D) feeling that less food is needed

72. Which of the following is not caused by reduced bladder capacity and incomplete bladder emptying in the elderly? A) nocturia B) frequency C) infection D) kidney stones

73. Which of the following is a reason that infections are more common in the elderly? A) poor circulation B) increased rate of mitosis C) more effective immune system D) increased use of medications

74. The term that refers to one side of the body being paralyzed is: A) quadriplegia B) paraplegia C) hemiplegia D) diplegia

75. Which of the following is not a possible musculoskeletal problem resulting from immobility? A) loss of muscle strength B) increased bone density C) contracture D) atrophy

76. Which of the following is not a factor that promotes skin breakdown in immobility? A) poor circulation B) edema C) loss of sensation D) excessive dryness

77. Which of the following is the correct order that changes occur in development of a decubitus ulcer? A) area is first red, superficial skin breakdown, open area forms, necrosis B) area is first purplish, necrosis occurs, superficial skin breakdown, open area forms C) area is first white, superficial skin breakdown, necrosis occurs, open area forms D) necrosis occurs, area turns black, superficial skin breakdown, open area forms.

78. Which of the following is not an effect that immobility has on the respiratory system? A) breaths become slow and shallow B) coughing occurs more often C) gas exchange is decreased D) deep breathing decreases and becomes less difficult

79. Which of the following means pain that is felt in one area, but occurs in another? A) phantom pain B) intractable pain C) endogenous pain D) referred pain ‚

80. Which of the following is not an acute sign of pain? A) sudden and severe B) sleep disturbances are common C) localized or generalized D) vomiting may occur

81. Which of the following headaches is usually felt in the eye and forehead areas? A) tension headache B) TMJ headache C) sinus headache D) intracranial headache

82. Which of the following is not true about migraine headaches? A) the pain begins bilaterally B) one precipitating factor may be atmospheric changes C) they are related to an abnormal change in blood flow D) the pain is usually throbbing and severe

83. Which of the following is a drug that might be used for moderate pain relief? A) NSAIDS B) Acetaminophen C) morphine D) codeine

84. If someone were having open heart surgery, which of the following types of anesthetics would be used? A) general anesthesia B) local anesthesia C) spinal anesthesia D) none of the above

85. A temperature related reaction which causes shock, coma, and a high core temperature is called: A) heat cramps B) heat stroke C) heat exhaustion D) hypothermia

86. Which of the following is not a diagnostic tool used with the respiratory system? A) spirometry B) oximeter C) CBC D) culture and sensitivity

87. Which of the following sputum samples would indicate pneumococcal pneumonia? A) yellowish-green B) rusty or dark-colored C) bright red D) cloudy

88. Which of the following indicates a high-pitched crowing noise? A) rales B) wheezing C) rhonchi D) stridor

89. In which of the following conditions would treatment be mainly symptomatic? A) active tuberculosis B) sinusitis C) common cold D) bacterial pneumonia

90. Which is a way pneumonia is not classified? A) treatment method B) causative agent C) location of the infection D) epidemiological data

91. Which of the following is not true about tuberculosis? A) it is transmitted by oral droplets B) primary tuberculosis is asymptomatic C) treatment of active TB takes months D) most active infection occurs with the primary infection

92. Which of the following is true about a Mantoux test? A) it only indicates a person has been exposed to the bacilli B) it is a positive diagnosis of active TB C) it will be negative once active TB is treated D) if it is positive it will produce a heard, raised red area on the skin

93. Which of the following is not true about lung cancer? A) smoking is a major risk factor B) a symptom is a persistent non-productive cough C) bronchogenic carcinoma is the most common D) hoarseness can be a symptom

94. Which of the following treatments would probably not be used in lung cancer? A) chemotherapy B) hormone therapy C) surgical resection D) radio frequency ablation

95. Which of the following is not true about sleep apnea? A) women are affected more than men B) one symptom is loud snoring with intermittent gasps for air C) a CPAP machine may be used to treat it D) one possible complication is pulmonary hypertension

96. Which of the following is not true about asthma? A) a family history of hay fever, asthma, and eczema is common B) a contributing factor is a sedentary lifestyle C) the patient should avoid swimming D) good ventilation in buildings is helpful

97. Which of the following is a sign/symptom of asthma? A) rales B) atelectasis C) rhonchi D) wheezing

98. Which of the following is not true about emphysema? A) it is considered a COPD B) it can be cured with antibiotics C) the alveolar walls are destroyed D) cigarette smoking is a major risk factor

99. Which of the following is true about chronic bronchitis? A) smoking is a risk factor B) it is not a COPD C) it can be cured D) oxygen therapy makes it worse

100. Which of the following is not true about pulmonary embolism? A) 90% of emboli originate in the deep veins B) it is always life-threatening C) pain, cough, and dyspnea are symptoms D) heparin can be helpful in treatment

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